A 42- year-old was brought to the ED with a severe asthma exacerbation. The prescribed inhaled albuterol for him didn’t relive his attack, and the physician decided to administer parenteral triamcinolone. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for administration of glucocorticoid? a. Decreased sympathetic tone of airway smooth muscles+ Increased mucociliary clearance. b. Increased mucociliary clearance. c. Direct bronchodilating effect. d. Decreased sympathetic tone of airway smooth muscles. e. Increased bronchial responsiveness to albuterol.
[Verified Answer]: A 42- year-old was brought to the ED with a…
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