Ken, a 67-year-old man, has thrombophlebitis in his right lower leg. IV heparin is ordered. The patient’s weight is 175 pounds. Order: Give 80 units/kg heparin IVP now and start an IV drip at 19 units/kg/hour. Draw an aPTT four hours after the above has been completed and started. Answer the following questions in the following two groupings in the initial post: • What is heparin’s mechanism of action? • Why was an aPTT test ordered? • Why was a loading dose ordered? • How would you determine whether Ken is within the desired therapeutic range? • What is the antidote to heparin? Why might it not be necessary to administer the antidote when a client has a high aPTT? After three days of heparin therapy, Ken was prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO daily. An INR test was ordered. What is the pharmacologic action of warfarin? What are the half-life and the impact of the protein-binding effects for warfarin? Why was an INR ordered for KEN? What is the desired range? What is the antidote for Warfarin?
[Answered]: Ken, a 67-year-old man, has thrombophlebitis in…
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